Client purchased a property in 1991. They lived there for 7 years and then went to work abroad. They have since returned and have lived with parents and / or partners since then. As such, since 1998 the property has either been let out or empty and the client has never returned to the property. The property is now to be sold.
I am therefore of the opinion that PPR is only available in relation to the initial 7 years plus 18 months and there will also be some letting relief available, of course.
The client's partner is getting involved and stating that their accountant says that as the client has only ever owned this one property, they have the right to nominate it as there PPR regardless of whether or not they have lived there and that the entire gain would be exempt.
I believe this to be incorrect but, given that there could be a substantial gain, wanted to check that I wasn't overlooking something. Any thoughts would be gratefully received.