Hi, just need some clarification on the following if any of you have the time with the January madness. My brother in law bought his mother's property about 25 years ago for the market price. He purchased it with the view for giving his mother somewhere to live rent free and a pension plan via rental income. When his mother went into a home it was then renovated to rent out. It is now in joint names with my sister. They chose to rewire, replumb, new kitchen, bathroom, carpets at substantial cost in order to attract more of a rental income. It is now let through an estate agent. The kitchen and bathrooms were a straightforward replacement - although more modern looking, they cost £1900 and £1200 respectively, not a lot for a new kitchen and bathroom on the scale of things. The majority of the expenditure appears to be on the 'hidden' works like rewiring, plumbing, flat roof repair, building materials & builders costs etc. There were also finishing costs like painting & cleaning. I was speaking to an accountant and he was a bit unsure because the property was interited rather then purchased, if it were a straightforward purchase of an old property that had been reduced to reflect the need of some modernisation then the rules applying to capital v revenue expenditure are more clear cut but I can't see anything to clarify when property has been purchased and not rented for so long, he wanted to do works to it over the years to keep it up to standard but his mother didn't want the hassle, hence the eventual high cost of the renovation work.