My client has brought forward losses on a foreign property.
The mortgage interest has been restricted as I would expect and the correct losses carried forward.
However, he has received relief for the finance costs at 20% which I am sumwhat surprised about. He hasn't paid any tax in the year on the property income, but he has tax relief in his tax calculation.
Is this correct? or am I missing something, perhaps not ticked a box correctly in my software.