I think this may be a simple answer but, as it is a bit unusual and I haven't saw it before, I just want confirmation. Say a company has brought forward property losses and receives a post-cessation receipt (relating to a trade that ceased 2 years ago), am I right in saying there is nothing to prevent the property losses being relieved against the post-cessation receipt? Slightly profitable in the period of cessation so an election to carry back the receipt will be of no use. As property losses can be offset against total profits I assume this is fine?
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It is "I have not seen it
It is "I have not seen it before", not "I have not saw it before". Despite your bad grammar, your analysis appears sound.