I moved to the USA for work in June 2016 and have been living and paying income tax there since. Am I correct in thinking that I can request to reduce my payments on account for 2016-17 to nil, since I have not earnt any taxable income in the UK?
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Why did you previously have payments to account, what was the source income that gave rise to the need for them and does it continue, if not when did it cease ?
Presume you have prepared accounts covering from accounts ending within 2015/2016 and cessation of trade?
Was cessation of trade May/June 2016 or earlier, was it perhaps before 5/4/16 etc?
What was your normal year end re accounts?
Just prompting in case accounts do not marry with the tax year and you had not appreciated some of the interesting facets/ manifestations of basis periods/overlaps etc.
If you believe that your 2016/17 tax liability will be less than your payments on account, you can reduce them to the amount that you believe they should be, even if that's zero. If it later transpires that you have lowered them too much , you will be charged interest on the shortfall.
What kind of visa do you have in the US? Are you married? If so, are you electing to file a joint US income tax return for the full 2016 tax year?