Hi I have a client who owns 3 rental properties - all mortgage free.
during the year no rental income or expenses have been provided for one so when queried the client replied that the income was received and retained by the girlfriend. So basically he has let his girlfriend rent the property out to receive income which she has kept as he didn't need the money.
is that allowable? Would a charge not need to be made to the girlfriend? She is effectively renting it from him for £0 and then subletting