New clients consisting of father and son have purchased a rental property together in the proportion 60:40 respectively. I have a couple of questions - 1) Does the spilt of rental income have to be to them in the same ratio or can they choose say 35:65 respectively? I think they can choose a different ratio but would be grateful for clarification. 2) The son has individually put in more money to pay for expenses than the father - does this mean he can claim more expenses than the father or it is the case that the net income is taxed in the given proportion (ignoring who had paid what for expenses)? I hope this makes sense and thank you in advance for your time.