I suspect that the answer is no, but would like confirmation.
Client enters into a JV with a builder, who agrees a purchase price for the property, +2% of the final sale price. So we have an ascertained and an unascertained consideration.
The ascertained consideration would be chargeable, reportable, and payable within 60 days.
In my view, the unascertained consideration becomes chargeable when it is ascertained (i.e. when there is a final contract for sale), but is a disposal of a chose in action rather than a residential property sale, and so is not subject to 60 day reporting/payment.
Any dissenting views?
NB. I'm taking some lead from Marren v Ingles in this.
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I don’t understand the underlying transaction(s) but using the term JV suggests there’s some profit seeking motive and so possibly income tax being in point. Can you describe the arrangement(s) in more detail?