We have a client in the current scenario.
They are an unmarried couple who live in a rental property and have never owned a property themselves.
However one of the couple owns 50% of a property company that owns 4 residential rental properties.
Would this count as ownership for stamp duty?
Secondly the other person in the couple owns no shares in the company and has never owned a residential property. If they buy the property together is there any way to split the ownership so the 3% isn't payable on her share? E.g each own 50% separately? From looking it appears not, but I didn't want to miss anything as even though it isnt an expensive property it is a few thousand at stake.
Thanks in advance