Could someone please advise whether I am right in thinking this
I have a friend whom works in consultancy and he goes from site to site for his clients, he incurs train fare costs of which are zero rated therefore he obviously does not get the VAT back however when he invoices his customers is he right to put his services down, then mileage if any, then train fare and this total is then invoiced with VAT on?? As he surely should pay VAT on all of this? Or am I not right in saying this. His clients are saying that he cannot charge them the VAT element on train fare however they have not been charged by the rail company they have been charged by him for his costs and services??
Any advice would be great