Hi, I have a client call about transfering property to husband...
Transfer 1% of property to husband and attain 50:50 split on the rental income which i agree on
However the property has a mortgage of £400K, I was under the assumption that SDLT whould be due as they whould be liable equally to the mortgage company and not a 1:99 split on the mortgage.
Could any one point me in the right direction
and if its just 1% of mortgage transfer whould they still get 50% deduction for mortgage interest on rental profits?