Same person is the sole shareholder of two limited companies which have the same activity (but one provides services to vat-registered and the other to non-registered clients). Each company is independent from the other financially, they share premises but costs are recharged from contracted company to the other at arms length). One is registered for VAT but the other is not. How likely is it that the HMRC will treat this as one business for VAT reghistration (under Schedule 1a VATA 1994 artificial business splitting)? thanks.