My apologies. I am not sure how to put my questions right ....from a tax point of view can he be paid from company (B) where he is only a director into company (A) where he is sole director and shareholder? Does that meant that company (A) follows under IF35?
What is the most tax beneficial way ?
My answers
This is what I have been trying to ask :)
I'm guessing the question isn't whether the payment can be made to company A, but whether the payment can be taxable on A instead of individual?
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My apologies. I am not sure how to put my questions right ....from a tax point of view can he be paid from company (B) where he is only a director into company (A) where he is sole director and shareholder? Does that meant that company (A) follows under IF35?
What is the most tax beneficial way ?
Many thanks
I believe I mean all of the ... "is it ethical, is it legal under company law, is it contractually correct, are there tax concerns, ...?"
Thank you in advance for your reply