It's my understanding that you are correct as a business you should not have been charged UK VAT if the service you've been supplied is deemed a digital service & you've provided your UK VAT registration number.
But to my knowledge the supplier should be UK VAT registered and have a UK VAT number.
+1 for amount to be written off to P&L assuming invoice is addressed to insurers or if addressed to your client is for work carried out on behalf of the insurers.
To my knowledge you're not permitted to reclaim input VAT on invoices you pay on behalf of 3rd parties. This is particularly common for things like solicitors fees related to arranging bank loans etc.
This sounds really sad but being an accountant was all I wanted to do since I was in primary school.
I totally get the feeling low, I left practice and moved into industry and always ended up in management accountant roles which wasn't where I wanted to be, I wanted to be in financial accountant roles, as the years went in I started to hate accountancy and wanted to move back into practice knowing that I'd probably earn less but found it impossible, practices just didn't want to know.
At that point I felt like doing all the studying and exams for all those years
& the work I'd put in was a waste of time. I ended up leaving accountancy completely last November and moving into ERP implementation.
While I'm enjoying what my current job part of me will always think what if.
They are saying that this document means that because they are UK VAT registered they must charge UK VAT on all UK sales & account for them on UK return even their b2b sales of goods being sold by Irish company to UK company with goods originating in Ireland coming to UK.
I called HMRC and at first they said they are zero rated intra-community then said no you charge UK VAT.
I was of the impression they are zero rated and go on Irish VAT return.
Loosing anonymity but that's ok. If the following year the parent then had control of company previously accounted under fair value would only transactions post control be eliminated in p&l or the full year? I've only ever dealt with 100% ownership from incorporation before & it's been a long time since I've studied consolidation. Also looking at this from an IT implementation stand point so don't have a more knowledgeable accountant/senior to ask
The lease allows VAT to be charged if applicable but the landlord is refusing to provide OTT acknowledgement saying they don't have any legal responsibility to provide but I would have thought given that this is a change in treatment the onus would be on them to prove that they can apply VAT
Agree with Phil A service charge is part of the bill you have no choice about it (unless it's a discretionary charge this is same as tip as you can ask it to be removed) but a tip is a non mandatory gift to server.
So i'd agree yes service charge & no tip
Only lower in 2nd hand market In the 2nd hand market it is a buyers market here you get less money for the car/van your selling then if on the mainland, when it comes to new cars/vans there is no difference to mainland prices
Surely an accountant with 8 years relevant experience like yourself (based on the first question you posted on this site) shouldn't need another accountant to do their accounts, should know the correct basis of what figures should be used &/or should know the possible reasons why the returns wouldn't match sage & be able to reconcile & should definately be able to deal with something like this if offering or planning to offer services to the public.
From guidance on website Commercial childcare for employees earning at a rate of less than £8,500 per year - You don’t have to report or pay anything for these employees if you contract directly with a childcare provider, regardless of the cost of the childcare.
Important point - at a rate of is calculated as
Employee’s earnings during the year + Value of any expenses or benefits you’ve given them during the year.
Work out the full-year equivalent if they didn’t work the full year.
So if as you say the childcare takes them above the £8,500 threshold then yes there's a BIK unless amount paid is less than £55
My answers
It's my understanding that you are correct as a business you should not have been charged UK VAT if the service you've been supplied is deemed a digital service & you've provided your UK VAT registration number.
But to my knowledge the supplier should be UK VAT registered and have a UK VAT number.
https://www.gov.uk/guidance/the-vat-rules-if-you-supply-digital-services...
+1 for amount to be written off to P&L assuming invoice is addressed to insurers or if addressed to your client is for work carried out on behalf of the insurers.
To my knowledge you're not permitted to reclaim input VAT on invoices you pay on behalf of 3rd parties. This is particularly common for things like solicitors fees related to arranging bank loans etc.
This sounds really sad but being an accountant was all I wanted to do since I was in primary school.
I totally get the feeling low, I left practice and moved into industry and always ended up in management accountant roles which wasn't where I wanted to be, I wanted to be in financial accountant roles, as the years went in I started to hate accountancy and wanted to move back into practice knowing that I'd probably earn less but found it impossible, practices just didn't want to know.
At that point I felt like doing all the studying and exams for all those years
& the work I'd put in was a waste of time. I ended up leaving accountancy completely last November and moving into ERP implementation.
While I'm enjoying what my current job part of me will always think what if.
Hi Paul
Thank you for your reply. That's what I thought & told a colleague when they asked but they have come back with this GOV.UK guide
https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/vat-notice-7001-should-i-be-r...
They are saying that this document means that because they are UK VAT registered they must charge UK VAT on all UK sales & account for them on UK return even their b2b sales of goods being sold by Irish company to UK company with goods originating in Ireland coming to UK.
I called HMRC and at first they said they are zero rated intra-community then said no you charge UK VAT.
I was of the impression they are zero rated and go on Irish VAT return.
Loosing anonymity but that's ok. If the following year the parent then had control of company previously accounted under fair value would only transactions post control be eliminated in p&l or the full year? I've only ever dealt with 100% ownership from incorporation before & it's been a long time since I've studied consolidation. Also looking at this from an IT implementation stand point so don't have a more knowledgeable accountant/senior to ask
The lease allows VAT to be charged if applicable but the landlord is refusing to provide OTT acknowledgement saying they don't have any legal responsibility to provide but I would have thought given that this is a change in treatment the onus would be on them to prove that they can apply VAT
Agree with Phil
A service charge is part of the bill you have no choice about it (unless it's a discretionary charge this is same as tip as you can ask it to be removed) but a tip is a non mandatory gift to server.
So i'd agree yes service charge & no tip
Only lower in 2nd hand market
In the 2nd hand market it is a buyers market here you get less money for the car/van your selling then if on the mainland, when it comes to new cars/vans there is no difference to mainland prices
a bit confused & concerned
Surely an accountant with 8 years relevant experience like yourself (based on the first question you posted on this site) shouldn't need another accountant to do their accounts, should know the correct basis of what figures should be used &/or should know the possible reasons why the returns wouldn't match sage & be able to reconcile & should definately be able to deal with something like this if offering or planning to offer services to the public.
Just saying.
From guidance on website
Commercial childcare for employees earning at a rate of less than £8,500 per year - You don’t have to report or pay anything for these employees if you contract directly with a childcare provider, regardless of the cost of the childcare.
Important point - at a rate of is calculated as
Employee’s earnings during the year + Value of any expenses or benefits you’ve given them during the year.
Work out the full-year equivalent if they didn’t work the full year.
So if as you say the childcare takes them above the £8,500 threshold then yes there's a BIK unless amount paid is less than £55