if no accounting treatment is required, then the price she paid of £350k would that increase the fair value as before the acquisition the value of the assets were £70k?
He sold it to another company who will manage these. My client never owned this, only managed the rentals and paid vat on the commission he received before handing them over.
My answers
she will use the company funds to pay the seller
if no accounting treatment is required, then the price she paid of £350k would that increase the fair value as before the acquisition the value of the assets were £70k?
He sold it to another company who will manage these. My client never owned this, only managed the rentals and paid vat on the commission he received before handing them over.
So, is 5% correct according to the new guidance?