Member Since: 14th Jan 2007
7th May 2019
We all know what FTE is, if I have 4 people doing 17.5hours each then that's 1 FTE (if 35 hours are full time).
In the abscence of contractual hours, then I would expect HMRC would look at the actual hours being worked per week/month over a period of time to assess if 250 FTE limit is exceeded. If the limit isn't breached on that basis, then there shouldn't be a problem.
The same situation would occur in a seasonal business, where over a year there might easily be less than 250 FTE but for part of the year it's way over.
16th Apr 2019
The obvious point is if they are charging VAT (as they are VAT registered), how to they determine the GBP amount to pay to HMRC, or has HMRC started taking payment in any currency.
This is probably the logic behind the rules, so the customer is reclaiming the same amount as the supplier has to pay.
I also echo others opinions, and would let the amount determine how to proceed. Basically, if HMRC did subsequently disallow it would it cause a headache for your company?
8th Feb 2019
Amazon still like to use fax...
On 17 November 2017 at 04:51, wrote:
Greetings from Amazon.de.
Please note that your order is currently on hold pending the verification of your billing information. We will be happy to proceed with your order as soon as we receive a recent credit card statement for the credit card you referenced for this order.
At your earliest convenience, please fax us a statement which displays the billing name and address for the card.
You can find our fax number on the Amazon.de Help page:
Alternatively, you can ask the issuing bank of your credit card to contact us with verification of these details.
You will not be able to access your account online until this verification procedure has been completed. However, it is not necessary to open a new account or place a new order; we will complete the processing of outstanding orders once your billing information has been verified.
Thank you for your patience with our security measures.
17th Oct 2017
My understanding simply is that you have an address that is
1) the address of your home "home address"
2) the address of your business "business address".
When you are giving HMRC the address for VAT you need to give them the business address. To you and I it's clear the two are the same, but HMRC are a bit fussy about terminology.
The situation they are trying to avoid is, a business being run from 1 The High Street, but the registered VAT address being the home address 1 Acacia Avenue of a director.
For any business run from home, the business and home address will be the same, however what you don't want to do is tell HMRC you are giving them a "home address", you're not, you are giving them the "business address."
30th May 2015
I would say it depends on the size of the loan, it may be material for one company but not for the other.
I would also say that you could argue there is significant influence if a demand to repay in full or non-repayment would significantly affect the "going concern" basis of the lendor/borrower business.
Otherwise, I can't see any obligation to disclose other than providing transparency.
Presumably the loan will attract interest at a market rate? I also think it would be prudent to have an agreement, as much from the perspective of avoiding potential disputes later on, as to be able to demonstrate the commercial nature of the loan to any interested parties later on, bank, HMRC, potential investor etc.
30th May 2015
in my case
Also as a director taking my wife and later on my wife and son with me on business trips, i repaid the additional cost of the room going from single to double/multiple occupancy and the additional flight. Generally the room was about 20-30% more expensive.
Whether to put it to the dla or P11D depends on the company policy for spouses accompanying, if its permitted then P11D if its not then dla for the additional cost.
25th Apr 2014
Unless the chairperson and accountant say
Exactly what caused the debtHow it will be sorted out
then I would suggest to resign.
If they are unwilling to provide adequate information to properly understand the situation, then it seems to me they have an alterior motive.
18th Nov 2013
I once had a job title of
MIS Management Accountant
(management information system)
FD clearly had a sense of humour. :-)
27th Dec 2012
In the case of temporary workers surely paying them for holiday accrued and paying them for taking holiday is essentially the same thing? That is easy to claim in the case they are not on an active engagement through the agency at the end of the year.
In general though the employer has a responsibility to ensure that employees take their statutory holiday entitlement during the year, and I suspect the logic of paying the accrued holiday is to retrospectively say that the employees unengaged periods were holiday.
Personally, I'd say it's better to ensure employees "book" holiday days during the year when they don't have engagements, so that there is minimal amount accrued at the end of the year.
9th Mar 2012
Like several of the other posters I wouldn't say there is anything to suggest ML, however from the wording of the question implies the poster thinks the transactions are "suspicious" in some form.
As a former Finance Director, I occasionally would ask members of my team to make payments without giving full information about what the payment was for. I would always though send the relevant person an email to show that the instructions/authorisation had come from me. The reasons for not being explicit more often than not fell into the category of obtaining advice about a confidential matter such as a potential acquisition, or consultancy before a restructuring.
The questions I would be asking based on the original post would be
Who produced the invoice(s) the receiving company or your company?
How large are the invoice(s)? How does this compare to other (overhead presumably?) invoice(s)?
What account is the invoice being coded to?
Which country is the off shore account in? Does it seem likely that the your company might have or begin to have dealings in that country?
Does the IC process mean that other senior employees/Directors have approved the invoice?
If you're still unsure, I'd be more inclined to confirm the invoice with another Director (probably the MD or FD in this case) on the basis "I just want to check it's ok because we don't normally make payments like these", I don't think you should be "challenging" anyone though.