Member Since: 17th Jul 2015
9th Aug 2015
Thanks taxguru, in a way this is what we are trying to work out. If the two individuals were trading totally independently before 2003, but then at that stage decided to form a partnership (no monies changed hands for any goodwill at this point) could it be argued that the goodwill did exist prior to the Partnership? How could it be proven one way or the other that the goodwill only existed because of the partnership, rather than being carried forward from the original sole trader state?