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Income Splitting: Business case studies from the CIOT

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7th Dec 2007
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Following publication by the Treasury of draft legislation on “income splitting” (officially "income shifting") HM Revenue & Customs (HMRC) is seeking responses not only the draft legislation but also to the eighteen pages of draft guidance which seeks to try and demonstrate quite how one will quantify the relevant income.

A very basic, and straightforward example of income splitting, might be as follows:

  • Mr Smith is an engineer, he works an average a 40 hour week through a limited company incorporated so that he and his wife each hold 1 ordinary share each. Both are directors, and she is the company secretary. Mrs Smith does no work for the company at all. Mr Smith pays himself a salary to cover his personal allowance and the balance of the £100,000 profits are paid out equally to the shareholders as dividends.
  • This is a classic example of “income splitting” between husband and wife, and there is no commercial motive in place here other than to pay as least tax as possible. Mr Smith would never give half his company and half his income to another individual as an arms length transaction or otherwise, he is splitting his income to utilise his wife's basic rate tax bands and allowances. Mrs Smith’s dividends will, under the proposals be assessed as those of her husband.

In practice, most cases will not always be quite so simple. The Treasury have come up with this next example which illustrates how tricky it may be in practice to decide what, if any income is split or shifted:
Appendix B.109 In year one individual 1 and individual 2 form a partnership to provide graphic design services. Each individual introduces £50,000 of capital into the business. Individual 1, who is a graphic designer, carries on the trade of the partnership while individual 2 manages and promotes the business of the partnership. They both work full time and develop the business together. Trading profits for the first three years are £80,000 per year, which are shared equally. In year four, individual 2 does not work for a year and, during that time, individual 1 continues to work in the business providing the graphic design services to customers as before, but also now manages and promotes the business of the partnership on their own. However, profits are still shared equally between individual 1 and individual 2. The trading profits for year four are £80,000, with each partner receiving £40,000. In year five, individual 1 returns to work for the business. The business again makes trading profits of £80,000, which continue to be
shared equally.
The outcome: Maybe, maybe not?
The guidance says that “Income has not been shifted in years one to three, as the arrangements were commercial. Whether individual 2 taking the year off work in year four is sufficient to make the arrangements non-commercial will depend on the facts. Initially the arrangements may appear to be non-commercial because individual 1 has contributed labour and capital while individual 2 has only contributed their capital, and the legislation may apply. However there will be instances where this is not the case and the arrangements would continue to be commercial, so the legislation would not apply. For example, the legislation would not apply when the time off is for maternity or sick leave. The legislation may apply in situations where there is not a commercial rationale for individual 2’s leave that could otherwise justify an individual not working in the
business for a year yet continuing to receive a full share of the profit. In year five, the arrangements are back on a commercial footing and the legislation would not apply.”

A closer look
The unanswered questions here are whether individual 2 should benefit from income in year 4, when his or her capital is in the business, and some of its prosperity is down to his/her input. Does goodwill stand for nothing in these instances? If individual 2 has left to have a baby, that is apparently a commercial decision and there will be no tax charge!

The Chartered Institute of Taxation (CIOT) highlights that fact that income sharing is regarded as perfectly acceptable for unearned income such as rents or interest. It goes on to say that “It is very difficult indeed to see the logic of permitting income sharing in these contexts but not in the case of family businesses, which are the life blood of the economy.”

With the benefit of experience, the CIOT says that most family companies are genuine joint enterprises and the tax system should recognise this rather than attempt to force arbitrary splitting of the income between different family members. It has produced the following questions and five cases studies based on real businesses to illustrate the problems and difficulties that income splitting creates.

General questions

  1. Farming partnerships: How will family farming partnerships be treated? These partnerships often include not only husband and wife, but also other family members, such as an elderly parent, whose active "hands-on" faming involvement may well have decreased over the years. Often their profit sharing ratio may not have changed during this period because of the recognition of the value of their experience, guidance and other skills.
    Will this be acceptable? Would this be acceptable for parents but not for spouses or civil partners under any proposals?
  2. Risk: How is risk to which partners and director/shareholders are subjected to be valued? Won't each and every shareholder or partner be subject to the same risk? Will a business with much debt be treated differently to one without, in terms of the risks to which owners are subjected? Does the potential risk change depending on the economy, outlook or trade? For example, are some farming businesses (whether corporate or partnership) currently more at risk (e.g. with avian flu, blue tongue) and therefore to be treated differently now to later if matters improve?
  3. Valuing input: How will each owner’s input to the business be valued to determine the figures for self-assessment? Will businesses have to keep detailed records (such as timesheets) to ensure that they cannot be attacked retrospectively when HMRC make enquiries? How will any additional record keeping be justified when looking at the admin burdens of businesses? What disclosure will be needed to ensure no chance of discovery? Is the matter going to have to be re-assessed each and every year, or even part way through a year if circumstances change?
  4. Co-habiting partners: Will unmarried co-habiting partners/co-directors be treated differently from spouses or civil partners?

1. Husband & Wife (H & W) partnership – taxicab business

  • W used personal inheritance to acquire original Hackney Plate and vehicle.
  • H drove the taxicab and W carried out the office work, e.g. completed the paperwork, took telephone messages or requests and operated radio.
  • After several months W expanded the business by negotiating regular contract hires with a local council and some schools for transporting disabled children. The business turnover doubled in the period.
  • H was then involved in a car crash and initially the roles were swapped temporarily, whilst he recuperated and was unable to drive.
  • Unfortunately, as a result of complications following the accident H had both legs amputated and could only work in the office (not driving) – so W took over driving permanently.
  • Business folded within 2.5yrs due to H’s lack of ability to generate new work and W’s perceived lack of driving ability. Proceeds of sale split equally – even though assets originally purchased by W.

    Questions:

    1. How do you value the original capital input?
    2. How do you value the input in the first few months where H did most of work?
    3. How to value input of the new work generated by W?
    4. How do you value the input following H’s accident?
    5. Basically, how do you value the changing input over time, which was not foreseen and affected by the accident?

2. Husband and wife (H & W) partnership and company shareholders - builders and developers - sharing profits equally

  • Partnership: In the past H&W have bought land and built houses which were sold and they also bought land that they sold on to another developer after obtaining planning permission. One of their biggest projects was to purchase a dilapidated factory site which they turned into 35 small industrial units. They retained ownership of the units which are let and H&W are assessed on the rental income.
  • Company: H&W are also equal shareholders in a company which bought land in 1990 and obtained planning permission for hi-tech industrial units. Once the company had put in the infrastructure it marketed the serviced plots for sale. Some plots were sold, but then the bottom dropped out of the market and they eventually built warehouses on the remaining plots which the company continues to own and let out to tenants.
  • Both: When the building work was in progress (both partnership and company) H would have been on site getting his hands dirty and managing the sub-contractors. W was involved in every decision regarding which land to buy and was involved in all discussions with the bank, solicitors and surveyors. W was responsible for designing the show houses and she also got her hands dirty doing the landscaping. The partnership won a prestigious award for its design and presentation of the former factory site.
  • Immediately after the dilapidated factory site was acquired in the early 1990s there was a severe recession and the partners were in serious financial difficulty; everything they owned was in hock to the bank and they lived with that uncertainty for a number of years.

    Questions:

    1. How should the rents from the small industrial units be shared given the fact that husband may have spent more hours on the refurbishment, but the wife had a major input into the award winning design and landscaping of the site and she was joint and severally liable for all the very substantial debts?
    2. How should the dividends from what is now an investment company be shared given that husband spent more time on the day to day project management when the warehouses were being constructed, but the original intention had been to sell serviced building plots and the wife played an equal part in the acquisition of the land and the obtaining of planning permission.
    3. In short how do you measure the split of current income which derives from many years' history involving twists and turns which were affected by factors beyond the control of the individuals concerned?

Husband and wife (H & W) partnership – training consultancy business

  • H&W have been in partnership since 2000 and have always split profits equally - business of training consultancy.
  • At first, while their child was very young, W did all "back-room" work, including the accounts and general admin (prior to the partnership being formed W was paid a wage for this).
  • Gradually W's direct business involvement has increased - by taking on the business development and marketing, and by gradually starting to do a proportion of the "fee-earning" consultancy work.
  • H still does the majority of the "fee-earning" consultancy work, but the proportion undertaken by each varies according to the demands of clients - and (as the majority of the work involves travel) they never go away at the same time, so that one of them is always there for their child.

    Question

    1. It seems quite clear that W's involvement in recent years could be commercially justified as being equal. In the same way, is it right to suggest that it would not have been equal in the earlier years of the partnership? W was, as a Partner, even then jointly and severally liable, and her "background" role enabled H to go out and accept work which ensured that the partnership was a commercial success. If they had split the back-room and other elements equally, no doubt W would have been out fee-earning at a much earlier stage - but the fact that they chose a traditional route should not devalue her input into the partnership.

Limited company - Tax and accounting practice

  • Shares owned equally by two working directors, A&B (each married to other spouses) who set the practice up from ‘day one’ as a limited company.
  • For commercial reasons, from the outset, they paid each other identical salaries and, having identical shareholdings, took identical profits. They decided that remunerating each other or splitting shares in proportion to the value of their input to the business would be divisive and engender a lack of trust.
  • A&B lent the company different amounts to provide some working capital.
  • A&B brought in different qualifications – one an accountant, the other a trust tax expert – he attracted clients who otherwise would not have used the firm.
  • A&B had different skill sets in terms of IT knowledge (vital in a small business with own IT network and no IT dept), management skills, organisational skills, marketing, design and networking skills.
  • A&B had different backgrounds – A had been in practice for entire career whereas B had spent a period lecturing and had developed presentation skills.
  • Each had different contacts many of whom became clients – B brought in far more than A.
  • A was able to deal with all the internal accounting without having to pay for staff from day one.
  • A’s husband was an IT consultant and was able to provide her tips on running the IT network before an IT contractor was affordable. She dealt with the firm’s IT network (with some external assistance).
  • B dealt with designing brochures, personnel matters, writing press releases, client newsletters and maintaining the website.
  • B worked full time (approx 40 hrs per week), A part-time (approx 20 hours per week at the start which increased to 30 hrs per week), due to family commitments.
  • Each took different and variable amounts of holidays, dependent on workloads and family commitments – these varied from year to year.
  • B was able to delay taking salary when cash flow tight in early days.
    B had more time off sick, yet A often had to leave early for parents’ meetings etc.
  • A lived near to the office so was able to be the key holder, check the mail during Christmas shutdown, pop back to meet clients out of hours etc.
  • 2 years into the business (three years ago) both business partners separated from their spouses and moved in with each other ‘as husband and wife’ and continued in the practice, then subsequently became civil partners.

    Questions

    1. Is the period after becoming ‘life partners’ treated differently to before?
    2. Is the situation different again when they became civil partners?
    3. Is to do so discriminating against couples?
    4. How do you value their varied input, which changes from day to day and is dependent on many circumstances, not always within their control?

Husband and wife partnership incorporated – plumbing and fireplace business

  • H was in partnership with another partner X, who wanted to retire. X had run the shop whilst H installed fireplaces and carried out plumbing work.
  • W acquired 50% of business at a commercial rate from X and started work in shop dealing with customers and paperwork.
  • Within 6 months they incorporated the business, with shares owned 50:50.
  • W expanded business considerably through her vast contacts and extended the range of goods sold in the shop to other related items.
  • W negotiated better deals with suppliers.
  • Within 18 months of her joining the business turnover had more than doubled and profits had almost tripled.
  • Two years later W was diagnosed with a serious illness and had considerable amounts of time off work, whilst an assistant was employed in the shop. Takings and profit dropped but were still above level before W joining the business.
  • Due to illness, they decided to sell the shop and work from an office at home, having built up a reputation locally, which they maintained through personal contacts and advertising. Turnover fell further, but profits only fell slightly (due to reduction in overheads) but again still above earlier level.

    Questions:

    1. How do you value their varied input, which changed over time, as input varied due to knowledge of business, skills, contacts and hours input?
    2. Does value input have to be valued differently during period of increasing illness?

If you have some equally baffling case studies, let us know below or by emailing; [email protected] or better still, submit them to HMRC as part of the consultation process.

Useful links:
Income shifting: a consultation document

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Replies (17)

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By User deleted
06th Mar 2008 11:50

If not shareholder OR director OR employee ?
Penny -
Even if that case were caught, what if he were neither a director nor a shareholder: his wife is 100% shareholder and sole director. Also he is not an employee of the company as he receives no remuneration from it. I can't see that he has any 'entitlement' to income from the company, therefore has not foregone any income, therefore this extreme case surely cannot be caught?

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By User deleted
04th Mar 2008 20:23

What about this one?
Husband is partner in successful firm, wife has negligible income. Husband identifies an opportunity to use his skills outwith the partnership. He sets up limited company with himself as director and wife as 100% shareholder. The company pays only final dividends. Although it is the husband's efforts that generate the income, final dividends have (I believe) to be ratified by shareholders. Can it be said, therefore, that the husband is unable to influence the amount of the income foregone and the rules will therefore not apply? Or will the director's recommendation of the dividend level, even though he cannot approve it, constitute influence for this purpose?

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By User deleted
07th Dec 2007 16:05

Fair is fair.
In the interests of fairness to all I have edited out the qualifications which Roger has commented on.

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By User deleted
07th Dec 2007 15:11

Comment

I like this point used by the CIOT in the tax and accounting practice example:

"A&B brought in different qualifications – one an ACA, other a CTA – having a CTA director attracted clients who otherwise would not have used the firm."

That adds nothing to the points they make on the dfficult issues here, but appears to me to be a rather shameless and unsubtle promotion of the CTA qualification by the CIOT.

I am, for your information, qualified as both an ACA and CTA.................

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By User deleted
07th Dec 2007 21:13

timesheet
I think this means only one thing - small business (who already have enough red tape) will now have to keep a time sheet of who does what
in order to proof the amount of their contribution. Rememeber that the onus of proof is always with the tax payer.

That is of course after spending weeks with all the HMRC submissions, VAT changes, employment legilation, industrial regulation changes etc.

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By User deleted
08th Dec 2007 10:16

Timesheets
The guidance says that no additional record keeping will be needed which is not too helpful. HMRC will have to rely on those under enquiry to remember who did what and when. This makes me think that if you cannot ascertain the input of say a spouse, someone will then have to estimate input based on, well what?

I think this where it all gets rather interesting. Who could you take to give a comparison for say the work done by a spouse, who is not the main fee earner? You could not do an arms length comparison because that would involve analysis of an entirely different type of worker, or would it? Are spouses entitled to "extra" for say working irregular hours, often putting up with a business run in the spare room, having to act as dogsbody from time to time, and putting up with your mood swings? Would a normal person ever take on such a role, and what is the going rate? From what I can see the role of the non-fee earning sort of spouse is often more akin to some crazy sort of PA.

Then we get to looking at a return on capital investment for this sort of spouse. Should a spouse be entitled to a return in respect of his or her input in terms of goodwill generated and overall prosperity of the business. What about risk? Surely the spouse bears this too? The business may not have a loan secured on the house, but businesses can and do go bust. How much is the lack of job security worth on an arms length basis?

I think, that actually I shall have to write an article on this and develop a costing methodology. I have next to me a book called "Accounting for a better life" which develops a domestic accounting model, it seems I have actually found a use for it.

Don't forget that this "consultation" shows a negative Admins Burden of £200,000, so really it will, actually, really, honestly...save money...

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By NeilW
10th Dec 2007 09:21

The real intent
What it boils down to is simply increasing the cost of using the dividend route such that when you do the costings, including the risk of investigation it will turn out to be 'cheaper' to pay salaries.

As usual with Labour they won't say what they really want up front - which is for people to pay Employment Income.

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By daveforbes
10th Dec 2007 13:35

market rate salaries
If a husband and wife jointly own a limited company and each is paid market rate salary for any work they do for the company, it seems reasonable that any remaining profits should be distributable as a dividend to the shareholders.

The other bizarre thing is that it does not apply if you are both higher rate tax payers. Suppose you also had investment income so that your were both higher rate taxpayers. Then it is ok. Move your investment to one for capital growth, deferring income tax to a capital gain down the line, one shareholder may drop out of 40% band - and you are suddenly a "dodgy income splitter"

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By skeeve
10th Dec 2007 15:00

Consulation Misrepresents
In a fair and equitable tax system shouldn't the internals of a company be treated as a black box ? Its quite possible to construct many examples where the proposed consultation is quite plainly stupid.

e.g. Clive and Anne set up a company to sell s/w services. They have a Polish friend Pavel who agrees to work for them for £40k (twice his Polish income) and after many sales calls, they place Pavel at CreditHole Bank, Canary Wharf. The daily rate is £750. The company earns a profit (before CT) of £130k. Clive and Anne have a share each ...
1. Under this legislation is the person who made the ACTUAL sale supposed to take the entire distribution ?

2. If Clive makes the sale, but Anne is the s/w engineer instead of Pavel, how is the ultimate profit to be distributed ? (This is the black box - the inputs and outputs are no different to the Clive/Anne/Pavel - yet this is caught by the legislation.

Limited Companies are an ENTITY in their own right. There is nothing (yet) in law to prevent any two people from enjoying the legal right to co-own a company. (In fact if the legislation is skewed against married/civil partners then its almost certainly a breach of their EU Human Rights).

If the government want to raise more revenue there are two distinct obvious things they can do:

1. Abolish the small companies tax rate.
2. Remove the ability for Limited company owners to receive any form of benefit - e.g. Family Tax Credit.

It seems fairly obvious that the 0% CT rate completely screwed with tax predictions at the lower end of the business market and if they want to now discourage incorporation, use a scapel instead of a blunt hammer.

The consultation is extremely biased - it suggests e.g. that "0" tax is raised on a £60k income split between two partners, versus £6k for a single owner, versus £15.5k for a Sole Trader. In reality the situation is £13200, £15k and £15.5k - because the compiler's appear to be unable to compute the CT contribution.

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By User deleted
10th Dec 2007 19:03

Income splitting
What amazes me about all the examples the IR give is the naivety about how they are run. If I'm not mistaken all the profits were extracted from the example companies each year - nice and handy for simplistic calculations that the IR want to achieve but this just doesn't happen in practice.

I have a small family company that has significant retained profit over the years, because you just don't know what tomorrow or the next few years may bring. It thus generates significant interest income - not earned by any particular person - so the questions are these

- how should income splitting apply to profts earned say a decade ago?and
- should non-earned profits be subject to income splitting? If so how?

I fear that the legislation will be as well targeted as the other recent [***]-ups like IR35 and S660 - a lot of heartache and soul-searching for the poor businessman which most likely will achieve zip after implementation.

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By notmy realname
17th Dec 2007 17:47

Part A
Getting away from the rights or wrong of this, on a very practical level I simply don’t see what the actual “shift” computation should be. I think this is the angle to go at rather than worrying about measuring the worth, its hard enough to do the math even if the “worth” is quantifiable.

Ie even if we know (presumably using some detailed prescriptive list of what hours are ‘allowable’ and what hours are not backup up by a daily timesheet) how many hours are worked and even if we some how accurately know what is an appropriate rate of pay for each type of work undertaken.

The guidance still doesn’t actually help us compute the “income shift”.

Let us assume the company make £100k profit. No other salaries. Pays CT of £20k. Net profit £80k. Profits split equally, £40k each and paid out for simplicity. A works 1,000 hours in the year, at a rate of £20 per hour ie £20,000. B works 1,000 hours at a rate of £30 per hour, ie £30,000.

Now are the dividends split 50:50 (both worked 1,000 hours), or are they split 40:60 (in line with relative ‘market’ rates) or are they split 20:60. If its 20:60 this doesn’t make any sense to me as the £20k is a net figure, the £20k salary is a gross quoted salary.

Had the company paid A £20,000 it would have incurred NI of (say) £2,500 and paid less CT, so net profits to distribute of £62,500.

A would (with a salary) received around £15,000 net salaried income. So does this mean we should split this £62,500/£15,000 rather than £60/20? If so what happens to the ‘missing’ £2,500 (this could of course go either way depending on the relative tax rates).

Or should it be £65,000/£15,000, or £60,000/£20,000, or £60,000/£40,000 or £30,000/£30,000?

From the guidance notes it would appear ALL of the above are possible answers.

If the answer to this question is that these rules don’t apply as both work on the business full time (ie its 50:50), how does this change if the hours worked where 1,200 and 800 for example? Or 1,500 and 500? And is this fair? And when do we go from an “hours worked” basis to a “minority open market rate” basis? Given the fact that most business are more than the sum of their parts the "bounce" from one to the other is going to be very significant when you go over the wire and stray from a commercial relationship to "shifting income" in the eyes of HMRC.

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By notmy realname
17th Dec 2007 17:48

Part B
.........

What happens if A works 2,000 hour but is “worth” only £10 hour (support and marketing role), but B due to a long term illness works just 100 hours but is “worth” £200 per hour (advisory role)? Is this now an equal partnership (50:50) or an unequal one (hours worked) given they make £60,000 (ie more than their individual inputs) before CT. So this would be either, 15:33 (A’s net market salary and B taking the balance as the “brains”), 20:28 (A’s gross market salary and B taking the balance) 24:24 (Straight partnership), 28:20 (A taking the lions shares as the most hours, and B taking the gross market rate) or 33:15 (A taking lions share, and B net market rate) depending on which way you look at it.

What happens is B only works 50 hours, or does 200 hours? Or spends half their time on admin tasks?

There just doesn't seem any way of computing it fairly other than a very broad brush manner and leaving it to HMRC to challenge it.

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By User deleted
17th Dec 2007 20:32

What if?
I think, James, that you just get in a muddle...

In all seriousness, I think you have to review each business as it comes and this is one area where a broad brush approach may have you reaching for the phone about PI cover.

Check out this seasonal tale Costing the Spouse it has some interesting ideas about costing out the family workforce.


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By User deleted
18th Dec 2007 11:53

Profits pre 2008
Still haven't read anywhere how you account for retained profit in the company post next April.

Say company OldCo has significant built up reserves from retained profit over many years of trading (incidentally without ant timesheets etc,) which in turn generates its own non-laboured interest income. How can this be accounted for within the income shifting regs past next April.?

E.g. dividend x declared from old reserves - is this subject to income shifting, or dividend y declared from new interest on old reserves.

I just can't see how you draw a line in the sand next April because companies have been in existence long before then and unlike the HMCE examples do actually keep profit back.

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By skeeve
18th Dec 2007 11:23

How does this square with Company Law ?
Company law states that distributions must be made in proportion to the share holdings of the company "investors".

The income shifting legislation seems to try to run rough-shod over this. It will be impossible to make a dividend distribution comfortably without certainty about the "income-shifting" situation.

If on the other you somehow manage to value according to the income-shifting legislation and this results in uneven splits - then this will fall foul of company law on distributions.

As the TaxZone Costing the Spouse indicates this is an impossible situation.

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By notmy realname
18th Dec 2007 11:25

unworkable and unclear
Just seems completely unworkable.

Going back to one of the points below, if the open market rate of salary is £20,000, do you take £15k of net dividend (net of tax as an employee), £20k gross, or perhaps the £20k is the gross dividend ie £20k dividend = £18k net.

Huge differences in tax there for the other HR tax payer (£5k=£2k in tax). The consultation document doesn't even mention this important computation issue that I could see, nor does CIOT.

Re the Scrooge story, I thought that was just sarcasm rather than a practical guide on how to deal with it!


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By User deleted
19th Dec 2007 10:57

Spouse skills
An apparently simple case. 50/50 H&W company. H is a qualified engineer, company gains contracts which H fulfills as a named consultant.

However, these contracts are in China, and would not have been gained without W's input as she is Chinese and able to provide translation services as and when needed. Translation is not needed very much, and is rarely explicitly charged, but the contracts would not have been gained, and the income would be zero, without the language skills being available. How much do you value W's contribution for income-shifting purposes? Zero (she doesn't directly earn any fees) or 50% (she is equally responsible for gaining the contracts) ?

Reply to Steve re profits pre 2008. See draft legislation subsection (2) bottom of p.12 of consultation document. These would not have "formed part of the income of Individual 2 for the tax year 2008-09 or a later tax year" so would be excluded from the income-splitting amendment. Interesting question whether reserves could be accumulated over a period of years post-2008 and then paid out to individuals 1 and 2 in subsequent years, whether as dividends or salary, and escape these rules. 681B (4) (b) suggests that this might be possible because it introduces the comcept of "the relevant tax year" - i.e. perhaps the effect of the legislation could be mitigated by "time-shifting" the payment to individual 2.

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