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Tim Good states around 2 minutes into this video that it is not possible to allocate rental income between two spouses where a property is owned by one of them, he said this in the context of a deed of trust transferring beneficial ownership from the sole (legal) owner to that sole owner and his wife.
(Although the Any Answers question concerned the backdating of such a deed of trust, I don't think that Mr Good was thinking of that particular issue when he made this statement)
Sorry to have to ask this but has something changed about a deed of trust or the tax environment which means that they have become ineffective for income tax purposes, or is it the case that they were never tax-effective in the first place?